Did Marx change his opinion about the Paris Commune?
Recently I saw a letter from Marx to Domela in which Marx's statement about the Paris Commune differs from his previous views (I've highlighted the sentence), see below:
”Perhaps you will point to the Paris Commune; but apart from the fact that this was merely the rising of a town under exceptional conditions, the majority of the Commune was in no sense socialist, nor could it be. With a small amount of sound common sense, however, they could have reached a compromise with Versailles useful to the whole mass of the people -- the only thing that could be reached at the time. ”
The letter can be read at the following link:
Did Marx change his mind, or did I misunderstand the letter?